[Physics] Clock time vs. common sense time

Ilja Schmelzer ilja.schmelzer at googlemail.com
Fri Nov 4 11:05:51 CET 2016


2016-11-02 22:23 GMT+01:00, Arend Lammertink <lamare at gmail.com>:
> I would expect the "Lorentz ether" to be defined such that it behaves
> well under the Lorentz transform.

No. The Lorentz ether is what distinguishes true time and absolute
rest from other frames, which are indistinguishable by observation
from the true frame.  So, it is exactly what does not transform well
under Lorentz transforms, but, instead, distinguishes a preferred
frame.

> I can live with that. After all, it's Maxwell's "logical error"!!!

There is also no Maxwell's "logical error".  I mentioned "Einstien's
logical error" only because it is (inclusive the spelling error) a
quite typical "ether crank" statement.  Maxwell is seldom attacked by
cranks.

>> Similarly, claims that there is no time dilation are nonsense.
>
> I don't know if really ALL of them are nonsense, but according to Paul
> Stowe it is indeed possible to make an explanation for time dilation
> from an aether theory.

First, of course, all are nonsense, once there is clock time dilation.
Then, no need to refer to Paul Stowe, in my ether theory of gravity
the EEP is derived, and so time dilation is derived too.

> Either way, now that we found "Maxwell's hole" - the term dA/dt in his
> definition for the electric scalar potential Ph- we must conclude that
> it is exactly this hole which demands a solution like the Lorentz
> transform, etc., etc.

If you want to change the Maxwell equations and hope that this helps, sorry,
you have no chance.



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